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IAS EXPRESS - Free Download

Rounded Rectangle: 15 TESTS
For GS
From August 16, 2017 - May 16, 2018.

[Click Here to Download Full Details]

Apart from the list of below mentioned tests 16TH OF Every Month From August 16, 2017 - One Current Affairs Based Test Will be there (Total 10 Tests ) + 20 Tests Below – For Details of Fees visit our Institute or Call/Whatsapp – 9884 554 654.

PRELIMS 2018 TEST BATCH TIME TABLE

A SET OF FEW UPSC PRELIMS 2016 QUESTIONS

TALLIED WITH OUR TEST BATCH QUESTIONS - SAMPLE

 Q. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

(a) Developing solar power production in our country.
(b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country.
(c) Exporting our food products to other countries.
(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country.
Ans. A
Exp:  The policy of Domestic Content Requirement is with intent to promote the local manufacturing of the components of solar generation equipment which includes the cells and modules.

Our Test no:1 – Qn.75

Why the WTO is right in the solar panel dispute?.

(a) India has violated its “national treatment” obligation by unfavorably discriminating against imported solar cells and modules.

(b) World Trade Organization (WTO) panel found that the domestic content requirement imposed under India’s national solar programme is inconsistent with its treaty obligations under the global trading regime.

(c) Both (a) & (b) 

(d) Neither (a) Nor (b)

 

 Q Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
Exp: Dengue and Zika are both mosquito borne viruses spread especially by the Aedes Aegypti mosquito species.
Evidence has emerged that the Zika virus can actually be transmitted through sex and blood transfusion. This is an element that has also created some difference between the two even though the sexual transmissions are still on the low.

Our Test no:2 – Qn.25 – Explanation Given in Class, IAS Express.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about "Zika virus"?

1. The virus spreads through Drosophila.

2. The virus has caused outbreaks in north-eastern India 

 3. Conjunctivitis is one of the most common symptoms of Zika virus 

disease. 

Select the correct option from codes given below: 

(a) Only 3 

(b) Only 1 & 2 

(c) Only 2 & 3 

(d) 1, 2 & 3 

 Note:

Zika virus spreads through mosquito bites. There have been no outbreaks in India but passive immunity has been traced in Indian samples during 1952-53. Since then, there are no reports on this virus in India. Fever, rash, joint pain, and conjunctivitis (red eyes) are few common symptoms of Zika virus disease.

 

Q  One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology

Ans. A 
Exp: Equality in society is The Absence of Special Privileges. Thus no person, family or class or group or persons in a society can be granted special privileges if we have to achieve Equality and liberty in a society.

 Our Test no:9 – Qn.58 - Explanation

 In Indian context, the rule of equality before law is not absolute; there are certain exceptions to it.

 1. A member of Parliament is answerable to court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament

 2. The President or the Governor enjoy constitutional immunities

 3. Foreign ambassadors and diplomats enjoy not only criminal immunities but civil immunities as well

 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 1 and 2 only 

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

 

Q. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
Ans: A
Exp: The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.

Our Test no:17 – Qn.88

World Economic Forum releases

1. Global Gender Gap Report

2. Global Risks Report

3. Global Information Technology Report

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Our Test no:9 – Qn.19 - Explanation

Global Gender Gap Index is released by

(a) WB

(b) UNDP

(c) UN WOMEN

(d) WEF

Note:-

The report examines four overall areas of inequality between men and women in 130 economies around the globe, over 93% of the world’s population:-

1.      Economic participation and opportunity – outcomes on salaries, participation levels and access to high-skilled employment

2.      Educational attainment – outcomes on access to basic and higher level education

3.      Political empowerment – outcomes on representation in decision-making structures

Health and survival – outcomes on life expectancy and sex ratio.

 

Q  Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: a
Exp: The Monetary Policy Committee would be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level.
It consists of 6 members. The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall hold office for a period of four years.
The Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;

Our Test no:19 – Qn.87

Which is/are true w.r.t. Monetary Policy Committee?.

(a) The Monetary Policy Committee is an executive body of six members that will decide on policy rate for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

(b) All members will have a vote each, but in case of a tie, the RBI governor has a casting vote to break the tie.

(c) Three members are from the central bank and three others are nominated by the government.

(d) All the above

Note:

The mandate of the committee - To keep inflation within the central point of 4% for the next five years, while keeping growth considerations in mind. The tolerance band for inflation is 2% on both sides of the central point. If the targets are not met for three consecutive readings, the MPC will have to give in writing to the government why it failed to meet the desired objective.

Our Current affairs Class

https://drive.google.com/file/d/0BzZzMWugvX78RDFfdXRfQXdCdjg/view - Page No. 24

 

Q  Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

a) Federalism
b) Democratic decentralization
c) Administrative delegation
d) Direct democracy
Ans: B
Exp: The main purpose of democratic decentralization, however, is to bring fundamental changes in the traditional outlook about the power structure of the government. Thus, democratic decentralization means decentralization of power. The source from which this power is decentralized is based on the democratic structure and hence, such decentralization is called the democratic decentralization.

Our Test no:16 – Qn.36

Match the following

List I

     List II

A. Panchayati Raj

1. Decentralisation

B. District Collector

2. Deconcentration

C. Power given to Assistant Commissioner of Police by Commissioner of Police

3. Devolution      

Answer codes

 

 

A

B

C

(a)

2

1

3

(b)

1

3

2

(c)

1

2

3

(d)

2

3

1

 

Q . Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function
2. executive function
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Exp: DPSP does not place any limitation on legislative and executive function, they are simply guidelines.

Our Test no:9 – Qn.56 - Explanation

Assertion (A): The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature.

Reason (R): Any law that gives effect to Directive Principles of State Policy in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) and in the process the law violates Article 14 or Article 19, then the law is not considered unconstitutional Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is True and R is False.

(d) A is False and R is True.

 

Q  In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emission of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and Uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Exp: Capturing CO2 from the major stationary sources and its storage into deep geological formations is considered as a potential mitigation option. Geological storage of CO2 can be undertaken in a variety of geological settings in sedimentary basins.
The options for CO2 are as follows:
• Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
• Use of CO2 in FOR
• Deep unmineable coal seams/enhanced coalbed methane (ECBM) recovery
• Oceans
• Deep unused saline water-saturated formations
• Other geological media are basalts, shales, and cavities
• Subterranean deep saline formations

Our Test no:19 – Qn.81

What is “Blue carbon”?.

(a) Carbon naturally present in Exosphere.

(b) Carbon naturally present in Stratosphere

(c) Carbon captured by the world's ocean and coastal ecosystems.

(d) Carbon sequestered under Earth’s Asthenosphere.

Note:-

“Blue carbon” is the carbon that is stored naturally by marine and coastal ecosystems, hence the name. Three types of coastal ecosystems — mangroves, seagrasses and tidal marshes — store half the “blue” carbon buried beneath the ocean floor.

It’s important because the release of carbon into the atmosphere is a major driver of climate change, and because blue carbon ecosystems hold a LOT of carbon — a given area of mangrove forest, for example, can store up to 10 times as much carbon as the same area of land-based forest.

UNEP’s Blue Carbon Initiative aims to develop a global partnership to advance the sound management of coastal and marine ecosystems in order to ensure that their carbon sequestration and storage functions are maintained, and emissions of greenhouse gases are avoided.

Our Sci & Tech Study Material for 2017

 

Q Consider the following statements:
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Exp: WTO members concluded negotiations at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference on the landmark Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership. The TFA contains provisions for expediting the movement, release and clearance of goods, including goods in transit. It also sets out measures for effective cooperation between customs and other appropriate authorities on trade facilitation and customs compliance issues. It further contains provisions for technical assistance and capacity building in this area. It came into being in Feb, 2017.

Our Test no:12 – Qn.100 – Explanation given in Class.

Which is/are false?.

(a) National Committee on Trade Facilitation launched has been constituted in line with the World Trade Organization’s Trade Facilitation Agreement.

(b) India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement of the World Trade Agreement.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Note:

NCTF will facilitate domestic co-ordination and implementation of TFA provisions.

 

Q Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park

Ans: B
Exp: An environment ministry’s expert committee has approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir national park. 

Our Test no:12 – Qn.77 - Explanation

Identify the incorrect pair(s).

(a)  Kuno – Tributary of Narmada 

(b)  Nokrek – World Network of Biosphere 

(c)  Salt water Crocodile – Bitar Kanika.  

(d)  Both (a) & (b)

Note:

The translocation of Asiatic lions from Gir National park to Kuno Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh was in news recently. Gujarat Government refused to relocate the lions. Experts have for long been saying that Gir has become overcrowded with lions and there is need to spread them out to other locations to ensure their genetic stability and health.

 

Q Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: c
Exp: Article 23 prohibits the traffic in human beings and forced labor such as begar.
Article 24 is against the child labour.
Article 17 is related to untouchability.

Our Test no:7 – Qn.30 - Explanation

 Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

2. Abolition of untouchability.

3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.

(a) 1, 3 & 4

(b) 1, 2, 3 & 4

(c) Only 1 & 4

(d) 1 & 3

 

Q Out of the’ ‘following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Ans: c

Our Test no:8 – Qn.62 - Explanation

The form of government in India is termed  as Parliamentary Government due to:

1. Presence of both nominal and real executives.

2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

3. Sovereignty of the parliament.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism ?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c ) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Ans: D
Exp: Indian Federation is not a result of agreement between federating units.

Our Test no:9 – Qn.74 - Explanation

Which of the following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?.

1. Federal government can redraw the boundaries of the Indian Union by forming new states.

2. Bifurcation of the Judiciary between the Federal and the State government

3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will.

4. The Federal and the State government have their own officials to administer their respective law and functions.

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Our Test no:7 – Qn.22 - Explanation

The secession of a state from the Indian Union has been barred by the

(a) Constitution (16th Amendment) Act, 1963

(b) Constitution (22nd Amendment) Act, 1969

(c) Constitution (29th Amendment) Act,1972

(d) Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1974

 

Q  With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’. sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B
Exp: The phenomenon is concerned to temperature differentials in Western Indian Ocean and Eastern Indian Ocean

Our Test no:19 – Qn.41 – Explanation Given in Class, IAS Express.

How is the  difference  in  the  sea  surface  temperature  between  the  two  equatorial  areas  of  the  Indian  Ocean  –  a  western  pole  near  the  Arabian  Sea  and  an  eastern  pole  closer to the Bay of Bengal called?.

(a) ENSO

(b) Indian Ocean Dipole 

(c) Southern Oscillation Index 

(d) Northern Oscillation Index 

Note:

üPositive IOD - During the Positive IOD, the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes colder than normal while the western tropical part of the Indian Ocean near the African coast becomes unusually warm. Such an event has been found to be beneficial for the monsoon.

Negative IOD - In this case the opposite of the above mentioned case occurs. The eastern equatorial Indian Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes abnormally warm while the western tropical part of the ocean near the African coast becomes relatively colder. This effect obstructs the progression of monsoon over India. 

 

Q Consider the following statements:
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

Exp: SHS will also enable the bankers to assess the quantum of loans to be granted on the basis of soil quality.

Our Test no:7 – Qn.9 - Explanation

Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. Soil Health Card Scheme?.

1. Under this scheme ‘Soil card’ to farmers which will carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for the individual farms.

2. Soil Health card (SHC) is a printed report card issued to farmers in once in two years.

3. Soil Health card indicates the status of soil in terms of 12 parameters.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Note:- Soil Health card (SHC) is a printed report card issued to farmers in once in three years.

Prelims Question of the Day

Planet 50-50” that was in news in recent times is related to

(a)Climate change

(b)Gender equality

(c)Global dimming

(d)Old age welfare

Mains Question of the Day

1. Explain the concept for which noble prize for medicine 2017 has been awarded. What is the significance these findings? - GS

2. Is self a process/product? - sociology

3. What is meant by new political science? Does new political science address the issue of fact-value dichotomy? - political science

Sociology - Thinkers